He cannot explain why
Historically introduced NW African types in Iberia (Capelli et al. (2009))
Sample N E1b1b1b (M81) E1b1b1a-b (V65) J1 (subset) Total %
Spain 717 5.2 1 1.5 7.7
Portugal 659 5 0.3 1.8 7.1
Iberia 1376 5.1 0.7 1.7 7.4
If the moors were arabs, not black, why is the arab dna 1.5-1.8% but the african dna is 5.3 -5.8%? In other words, the black dna is present 3-4 times more than the arab dna in lands arabs are supposed to have conquered and blacks didn't exist.
He thinks because I point out there were black empires in Europe I am calling all mdern europeans black. Which is untrue. English people can freely say the English empire was this
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